Study Yevamot folio 53B with parallel Hebrew-English text, traditional commentary, and modern study tools. Free access to Babylonian Talmud online.
Text Excerpt
חלץ ועשה מאמר ונתן וכו׳. בשלמא חלץ ועשה מאמר, איצטריך, סלקא דעתך אמינא: נגזור מאמר דבתר חליצה אטו מאמר דקמי חליצה, קא משמע לן דלא גזרינן. אלא חלץ ונתן גט למה לי?
§ It was taught in the Mishnah: If he performed ḥalitza and then proceeded to either perform levirate betrothal, or give a bill of divorce, or have sex with a second woman, nothing is effective after ḥalitza. The Talmud asks: Granted, it was necessary to teach that in the case of one who performed ḥalitza and then performed levirate betrothal the levirate betrothal is not effective. For it might enter your mind to say that we should issue a decree with regard to levirate betrothal that takes place after ḥalitza due to levirate betrothal that takes place before ḥalitza, and rule that all levirate betrothal is effective. The Mishnah therefore teaches us that we do not issue a decree in this case. However, the case of one who performed ḥalitza and gave a bill of divorce, why do I need this case? What novelty is there in the teaching that a bill of divorce after ḥalitza is not effective?
ולטעמיך, אימא סיפא: בעל ועשה מאמר, בעל ונתן גט — בשלמא בעל ונתן גט איצטריך, סלקא דעתך אמינא: נגזור גט דבתר בעילה אטו גט דקמי בעילה, קא משמע לן דלא גזרינן, אבל בעל ועשה מאמר למה לי?
The Talmud answers: And according to your reasoning, that each new case must teach something new, say the latter clause of the Mishnah: If he had sex and then proceeded to perform levirate betrothal, or give a bill of divorce, or perform ḥalitza with a second woman, nothing is effective. In this case the same question can be asked: Granted, it was necessary to teach the case of one who had sex and gave a bill of divorce. This is because it might enter your mind to say that we should issue a decree with regard to a bill of divorce that is given after sex, due to a bill of divorce that is given before sex, and decree that this bill of divorce alone is insufficient and she requires ḥalitza as well. The Mishnah therefore teaches us that we do not issue such a decree. But the case of a yavam who had sex and performed levirate betrothal, why do I need to state it? Once he has had sex with her she is his wife in all regards; what difference does levirate betrothal make?