Ketubot 97B

אלא מן האירוסין מאי טעמא? אמר עולא: משום חינא. רבי יוחנן אמר: לפי שאין אדם רוצה שתתבזה אשתו בבית דין.

However, what is the reason that a widow from betrothal may sell property when not in court? Ulla said: Due to desirability. The rabbis enacted several ordinances on behalf of women, so that men will want to marry them. R' Yoḥanan said: Because a man does not want his wife to be disgraced by being involved in court proceedings.

מאי בינייהו? איכא בינייהו גרושה. למאן דאמר משום חינא ⁠— גרושה נמי בעיא חן, למאן דאמר לפי שאין אדם רוצה שתתבזה אשתו בבית דין ⁠— גרושה לא איכפת ליה.

The Talmud asks: What is the practical difference between the two opinions? The Talmud answers: The practical difference between them is in the case of a divorcée. According to the one who says that it is due to desirability, a divorcée also requires desirability. But according to the one who says that it is because a man does not want his wife to be disgraced in court, a man does not care if his ex-wife is disgraced.

תנן: וגרושה לא תמכור אלא בבית דין. בשלמא למאן דאמר לפי שאין אדם רוצה שתתבזה אשתו בבית דין ⁠— גרושה לא איכפת ליה. אלא למאן דאמר משום חינא, גרושה נמי בעיא חן!

We learned in the Mishnah (97b): And a divorcée may sell only in court. The Talmud asks: Granted, according to the one who says that this is because a man does not want his wife to be disgraced in court, here he does not care if his ex-wife is disgraced. However, according to the one who says that it is due to desirability, a divorcée also requires desirability, so why should she be required to sell in court?

הא מני ⁠— רבי שמעון היא.

The Talmud answers: In accordance with whose opinion is this continuation of the Mishnah? It is according to the opinion of R' Shimon in the Mishnah, who explains that anyone who is selling property to receive payment of her marriage contract and not for sustenance is required to sell only in court, and a divorcée does not receive sustenance.