I am ready to answer any questions put to me like those of the intellectually sharp ben Azzai, who would regularly expound in the markets of Tiberias. One of the rabbis said to Abaye: The verses discussing the redemption of a Hebrew slave can be interpreted as a leniency for the slave, and they can also be interpreted as a stringency for him. From where is it derived that the verses should be interpreted as a leniency for the slave? Say that they should be interpreted as a stringency for him.
לא סלקא דעתיך, מדאקיל רחמנא גביה, דתניא: ״כי טוב לו עמך״ — עמך במאכל, עמך במשתה, שלא תהא אוכל פת נקיה והוא אוכל פת קיבר, אתה שותה יין ישן והוא שותה יין חדש, אתה ישן על גבי מוכין והוא ישן על גבי קרקע; מיכן אמרו: הקונה עבד עברי כקונה אדון לעצמו.
Abaye explained: Such a possibility should not enter your mind, due to the fact that God was explicitly lenient with regard to a slave. As it is taught in a baraita: The verse states with regard to a Hebrew slave: “And it should be, if he says to you I will not leave you…because he fares well with you” (Deuteronomy 15:16). The term “with you” indicates that the slave must be with you, i.e., treated as your equal, with regard to food, and with you with regard to drink. This means that you should not be eating fine bread while he eats inferior bread [kibbar], bread from coarse flour mixed with bran. Likewise, you should not drink old wine while he drinks inferior new wine. You should not sleep on bedding made from soft sheets while he sleeps on the ground. From here the rabbis stated: One who acquires a Hebrew slave is considered like one who acquires a master for himself, as he must ensure that the slave’s living conditions are equal to his own.